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The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A monograph of the performance of this play by the West-Indian born Ben Jonson.
The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A monograph of the performance of this play by the West-Indian born Ben Jonson.
The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A monograph of the performance of this play by the West-Indian born Ben Jonson.
The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A monograph of the performance of this play by the West-Indian born Ben Jonson.
The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A monograph of the performance of this play by the West-Indian born Ben Jonson.
The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A monograph of the performance of this play by the West-Indian born Ben Jonson.
The original Doc Faustus is in part based on the classical Doctor Faustus novel by Thomas Mann.. English Translation. Bystander. A
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English/English medium aadharshaat to Dr.Faustus by Christopher Marlowe Timings 11.30 AM-12.30 PM – On Sunday, August 9th, 2020, Interactive Media Production group of University of Vishnu Vardhan Â. George Bernard Shaw – .Q:

If $\sum a_n$ converges, does $\sum b_n$ also converge?

I’m a relative noob to this site and I’m aware that this is a pretty basic question, and the answer is obviously yes, but just in case I’m not finding anything on this site about it:

Let $a_n$ and $b_n$ be sequences of real numbers. Assume that $\sum a_n$ converges. Is $\sum b_n$ also convergent?

I can prove that it converges, but is it true in general? Thanks in advance.

A:

(If I’m interpreting the question correctly.)
You have $b_n = a_n – a_{n+1}$ for all $n$, hence the sequence $\{b_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ is just the difference between two terms of the sequence $\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$. The statement you want then just says that if the sequence $\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ converges, then the sequence $\{b_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ also converges. I would have to look up the basic statement of those two sequences to be absolutely sure, but if I remember correctly, both sequences need to be Cauchy. (Technically speaking, $\sum a_n$ needs to be absolutely convergent to be $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n a_n = \sum_{k=1}^\infty a_n$, but it’s in the same neighbourhood of convergence).
I would also guess that a proof of the statement could be done using $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n a_k = \sum_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ and the definition of a Cauchy sequence.

A:

If $\{a_

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